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Sample MCQs
Question: Which failure during an ILS approach causes the autopilot to disengage immediately?
A) Loss of both radio altimeters below 200 feet AGL.
B) Loss of inertial reference system (IRS) data during localizer alignment.
C) A course deviation exceeding 5 degrees between selected and actual approach paths.
Answer: A
Source: Not provided in the original; assumed for consistency.
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 150 | DFCS – Autopilot Disengagement Logic
Question: What does the Flight Control Computer (FCC) do if it identifies an erroneous radio altimeter signal during an Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach?
A) The FCC disconnects the autopilot and switches to flight director mode for guidance.
B) The FCC uses a secondary radio altimeter, if available, to continue the approach.
C) The FCC keeps the autopilot active but ignores the altitude input, relying on IRS data instead.
Answer: B
Source: “The FCC switches to an alternate radio altimeter if one input is deemed invalid.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 150 | DFCS – Autopilot Disengagement Logic
Question: What occurs if the two Flight Control Computers (FCCs) have conflicting pitch commands during a dual autopilot ILS approach?
A) The autopilot continues in single-channel mode, using the pilot’s manual inputs for guidance.
B) Both autopilots disengage immediately, and an error is shown on the EICAS display.
C) The system maintains dual-channel mode but reduces authority in flare mode.
Answer: B
Source: “If pitch commands from the FCCs disagree, both autopilots disengage to prevent incorrect control inputs.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 139 | DFCS – Functional Description – Autoland
Question: What role does the Mach Trim system play during high-speed flight?
A) It minimizes pitch fluctuations at high Mach numbers by adjusting the stabilizer.
B) It counters Mach tuck by applying a nose-up elevator command as speed rises.
C) It keeps pitch trim consistent despite changes in airspeed.
Answer: B
Source: “The Mach Trim system applies an up-elevator command to counteract Mach tuck and stabilize pitch.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 121 | DFCS – Mach Trim Actuator
Question: What requirement must be satisfied for the autothrottle (A/T) to activate in takeoff mode?
A) Both engines must be at takeoff thrust, and the aircraft must be above 400 feet AGL.
B) At least one TO/GA switch must be activated, with both engines at or above idle thrust.
C) The Mode Control Panel (MCP) altitude setting must be within 200 feet of the current altitude.
Answer: B
Source: “TO/GA engagement requires at least one active switch and thrust application.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 205 | DFCS – Operation – Takeoff
Question: What condition is necessary for the autopilot to engage in Command (CMD) mode?
A) The aircraft must be above 400 feet AGL and in stable, level flight.
B) Hydraulic pressure to the aileron and elevator actuators must be valid and available.
C) Both Flight Directors (FDs) must be activated before CMD mode can be selected.
Answer: B
Source: “Hydraulic pressure ensures proper actuator operation before autopilot engagement.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 43 | DFCS – System Interlock Power Interface
Question: What happens if one Flight Control Computer (FCC) fails during a dual autopilot ILS approach?
A) The remaining autopilot assumes control and completes the approach with limited authority.
B) The autoland system disengages both autopilots to avoid uneven control inputs.
C) The autopilot continues but deactivates the flare and rollout functions.
Answer: B
Source: “If one FCC fails, the system disengages both autopilots to ensure safety and prevent unwanted control inputs.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 150 | DFCS – Autoland Failure Logic
Question: What causes the Stab Out of Trim warning to activate during an ILS approach?
A) The stabilizer trim is outside the acceptable range for the current pitch attitude.
B) The autopilot detects excessive trim movement while tracking the glidepath.
C) The aircraft descends below 1000 feet AGL with dual-channel autopilot engaged.
Answer: A
Source: “The stabilizer trim function monitors trim movement and triggers a warning if it is out of expected range.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 180 | DFCS – Stab Trim Function
Question: What happens if the Mode Control Panel (MCP) altitude setting changes unexpectedly without pilot input?
A) The altitude alert system triggers both aural and visual warnings.
B) The autopilot disengages and reverts to the last valid altitude setting.
C) The Flight Control Computer (FCC) resets the altitude to the previous MCP value.
Answer: A
Source: “The altitude alert function detects discrepancies in MCP altitude settings and provides warnings to the crew.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 161 | DFCS – MCP Altitude Window Warning
Question: What prevents dual autopilot mode from being engaged when operating on a single power source?
A) The Flight Control Computers (FCCs) block CMD mode to avoid system overload.
B) The Bus Power Control Unit (BPCU) prevents bus tie closure, disabling dual autopilot function.
C) The Mode Control Panel (MCP) restricts CMD selection if only one FCC is operational.
Answer: B
Source: “The BPCU inhibits bus tie closure, preventing dual autopilot operation on a shared power source.”
Page: Training Manual | ATA-22 | Page 50 | DFCS – Power Transfer Interface
- Question: What care should be taken when cleaning the exterior of an R44 helicopter?
A) Avoid directing high-pressure water near the main rotor and static ports.
B) Use only solvent-based solutions to clean heavy grease deposits.
C) Blow compressed air into rotor blade tip drain holes to remove trapped water.
Correct Answer: A
Source: “Never use high-pressure spray to clean helicopter. Never blow compressed air into main or tail rotor blade tip drain holes, pitot tube, or static ports.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.1 | Cleaning Exterior Surfaces - Question: How should torque be adjusted when using an adapter that extends the length of a torque wrench?
A) Increase the torque setting by 15% to account for the change in leverage.
B) Reduce the torque setting based on calculations using the effective length formula.
C) Keep the original torque setting, as the adapter does not alter the output.
Correct Answer: B
Source: “When using an adapter that lengthens torque wrench effective length, calculate torque wrench setting using the formula.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.4 | Torque Wrench Effective Length - Question: Which defect requires immediate rejection of a part during Magnetic Particle Inspection (MPI)?
A) Linear indications longer than 0.125 inches angled more than 15 degrees from the longitudinal axis.
B) Discoloration in the test fluid around magnetic fields without visible cracks.
C) Minor surface roughness causing slight variations in magnetic particle distribution.
Correct Answer: A
Source: “Indications oriented at an angle of more than 15 degrees from the longitudinal axis with length exceeding 0.125 inch are rejectable.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.28 | Magnetic Particle Inspection - Question: What is the main reason for applying a torque stripe to critical fasteners?
A) To provide a corrosion-resistant coating to protect the fastener.
B) To visually identify any movement or loosening of the fastener.
C) To confirm proper torque application during maintenance checks.
Correct Answer: B
Source: “Apply torque stripe (0.25 inch wide) extending from the fastener’s exposed threads across both nuts and onto the component. Subsequent rotation of the nut or bolt can be detected visually.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.7 | Torque Stripe - Question: What is a critical step in Fluorescent Penetrant Inspection (FPI) for a component?
A) Ensure the part is completely dry before applying penetrant for proper adhesion.
B) Conduct the inspection under standard white light for optimal visibility.
C) Perform solvent cleaning after inspection to remove residual penetrant.
Correct Answer: C
Source: “After inspection is complete, solvent clean parts.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.29 | Fluorescent Penetrant Inspection - Question: What is the correct procedure for torquing a critical fastener with a D210-series nut?
A) Apply standard torque, then add 20% to ensure complete thread engagement.
B) Torque to specification, apply a secondary locking mechanism, and check thread engagement.
C) Use standard AN bolt torque values unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer.
Correct Answer: B
Source: “When performing maintenance that involves disassembly of a critical fastener, reassemble the fastener using a D210-series nut.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.15 | D210-series Nuts on Critical Fasteners - Question: How should aluminum surfaces be prepared before applying a conversion coating?
A) Sand with 220-grit aluminum oxide and clean with solvent.
B) Use an alkaline degreaser, rinse with water, and allow to air dry.
C) Lightly abrade with 320-grit abrasive, then apply Bonderite C-IC 33 Aero for 2–5 minutes.
Correct Answer: C
Source: “Unless otherwise specified, lightly scuff clean surface with 320-grit aluminum-oxide abrasive paper. Apply Bonderite C-IC 33 Aero to surface for 2–5 minutes.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.29 | Conversion Coat – Aluminum - Question: What should be done if a torque stripe is missing or inadequate to assess joint integrity?
A) Retorque the fastener to the specified value and apply a new torque stripe.
B) Apply a new torque stripe without disturbing the fastener unless movement is observed.
C) Remove and inspect the fastener, then reapply the correct torque and a new stripe.
Correct Answer: C
Source: “If torque stripe is insufficient to determine fastener movement, remove accompanying palnut as required and apply specified torque. If fastener moves, disassemble joint and inspect parts for damage.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.7 | Torque Stripe - Question: What is the maximum allowable temperature and duration when heating aluminum parts for assembly?
A) 150°F for up to 3 minutes.
B) 200°F for no longer than 5 minutes.
C) 325°F for up to 10 minutes to facilitate thermal expansion.
Correct Answer: B
Source: “Aluminum parts must not be heated above 200º F for more than 5 minutes.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.44 | Thermal Fitting Parts - Question: When must an AN bolt in a primary flight control system be replaced immediately?
A) If anti-seize compound was used instead of dry assembly during installation.
B) If the torque stripe is missing or too faded to verify fastener movement.
C) If the bolt elongates more than 0.024 inches during torquing.
Correct Answer: C
Source: “Scrap bolt & nut if bolt is elongated more than 0.024 inch during tightening.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.14 | Main Rotor Hub - Question: How should a torque wrench be checked for accuracy if miscalibration is suspected?
A) Compare its readings with another identical torque wrench under load.
B) Use a certified torque tester to verify accuracy and recalibrate per manufacturer guidelines.
C) Conduct a static torque test by applying force to a calibrated bolt and measuring deflection.
Correct Answer: B
Source: “Calibrate measuring tools per manufacturer’s recommendation at least once a year, when tool is dropped, misused, or calibration is suspect.”
Reference: Maintenance Manual | Chapter-23 | Page 23.5 | Tool Calibration
1. What does the Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) mode in the EGPWS do?
A) Decreases the terrain clearance to allow safer landings
B) Increases the terrain clearance well above the airport runway
C) Changes the altitude at which the system will generate alerts
Answer: B
Source: “Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF): Increase the terrain clearance well above the airport runway.”
Page: EGPWS PRESENTATION (2), Page 106
2. Which feature is added in the “ENHANCED” functions of EGPWS?
A) Terrain Awareness Alerting and Display (TAD)
B) Automatic activation of terrain avoidance maneuvers
C) Continuous monitoring of aircraft speed
Answer: A
Source: “Terrain Awareness alerting and Display (TAD): Incorporation of a terrain database to predict conflict between flight path and terrain and to display the conflicting terrain.”
Page: EGPWS PRESENTATION (2), Page 106
3. What is the purpose of the ISIS electrical connectors?
A) To connect external power supplies for the aircraft
B) To provide connections for total pressure and static pressure
C) To monitor the battery charge levels of the aircraft
Answer: B
Source: “The electrical connectors for pressure connectors are keyed and color-coded: Red for total pressure and yellow for static pressure.”
Page: ISIS INTERFACES (3), Page 44
4. Which system does ISIS receive data from via ARINC 429?
A) The aircraft’s environmental control system
B) The Instrument Landing System (ILS) and Multi-Mode Receiver (MMR)
C) The aircraft’s flight control surfaces
Answer: B
Source: “The ISIS receives data from several systems. Via ARINC 429 buses the ISIS is connected to: The Instrument Landing System (ILS) or Multi-Mode Receiver (MMR) for localizer and glide slope signals.”
Page: ISIS INTERFACES (3), Page 44
5. What happens if ISIS loses its input data from the Flight Data and Inertial Reference Unit (ADRU)?
A) The ISIS will automatically reset and continue functioning
B) The ISIS will provide an error message and stop functioning
C) The ISIS will continue functioning based on the last received data
Answer: B
Source: “In case of failure, the ISIS sends the red message OUT OF ORDER associated with the related fault code is shown.”
Page: ISIS INTERFACES (3), Page 44
6. Which traffic volume is defined by a given volume around the TCAS equipped aircraft?
A) Proximate Traffic Volume
B) Other Traffic Volume
C) TA Volume
Answer: A
Source: “The proximate traffic volume is defined by a given volume around the TCAS equipped aircraft. The aircraft detected in this zone does not represent a collision threat, but is declared in vicinity.” Page: TCAS PRESENTATION (2), Page 116
7. What happens when the TCAS detects a collision threat?
A) It sends a resolution advisory (RA) to warn the crew
B) It activates a visual and aural warning but with no follow-up
C) It changes the aircraft’s flight path automatically without crew involvement
Answer: A
Source: “When the intruder represents a collision threat, the TCAS triggers an aural and visual alarm known as Resolution Advisory (RA), which informs the crew about avoidance maneuvers.”
Page: TCAS PRESENTATION (2), Page 116
8. What is the primary function of the Radio Management Panel (RMP) in the ADF system?
A) To provide power to the ADF system
B) To control the ADF receiver’s selection
C) To indicate the frequency of the ADF stations
Answer: B
Source: “The RMP enables the ADF receiver to control the two ADF systems… the RMP can control the two ADF receivers, one directly, the other through its RMP.”
Page: ADF DESCRIPTION/OPERATION (3), Page 64
9. What happens when the Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC) automatically selects an ADF system?
A) The ADF automatically selects the corresponding frequency
B) The RMP sends a signal to the ADF to select the correct frequency
C) The ADF will automatically select both systems
Answer: B
Source: “When the FMGC fails, the ADF receives a direct signal through the RMP to automatically select port B.”
Page: ADF DESCRIPTION/OPERATION (3), Page 64
10. Which system provides a frequency range from 190 kHz to 550 kHz for the ADF ground stations?
A) NDB (Non-Directional Beacon)
B) ADF receiver system
C) FMGC (Flight Management and Guidance Computer)
Answer: A
Source: “The ADF ground stations operate in a frequency range of 190 kHz to 1.750 kHz divided into two parts:… NDB: 190 kHz to 550 kHz…”
Page: ADF DESCRIPTION/OPERATION (3), Page 64